Paul-Nitz wrote:Many more volumes are out now.
I have been reading the Baylor Series on James, by AKM Adam. It lives up to it's name, a "Handbook on the Greek Text." If anyone is simply looking for notes on the text, rather than a running commentary on the text, this will do nicely.
I was very interested to read in the Series Introduction that Baylor press has gone with a sensible view of voice in this series. They even give Carl and B-Greek due credit: "In recent years, a number of scholars have taken up Robertson's quiet call to abandon this [deponency] label. Carl Conrad's posts on the B-Greek Internet discussion list... have help flesh out the concerns raised by earlier scholars."
See full quotation here: http://librarun.org/book/18339/22
Paul-Nitz wrote:In what I have read in the volume on James, the term deponency has not arisen, but neither has any comment on voice that would seem to agree with our B-Greek discussions and Carl Conrad's papers. For example, here is a puzzling comment on “οὐ διεκρίθητε ἐν ἑαυτοῖς Have you not ____ among yourselves?” James 2:4:
Διεκρίθητε. Aor pass ind 2nd pl διακρίνω. On the meaning of the verb, see 1:6. Here, the clause οὐ διεκρίθητε ἐν ἑαυτοῖς might be translated: “are you not at odds?” These words begin the apodosis of the preceding conditional construction. As in 1:6, the interpretation of διεκρίθητε is challenginrg, as the active form, “you have made distinctions,” would make a smoother inference from the preceding hypothetical situation and would lead directly to the allegation that “you have become judges.” Some interpreters therefore try to bend the passive toward the active sense. Other interpreters construe the verb as meaning to “doubt” or “waver,” a sense unattested before the NT (but ostensibly legitimated by James’ usage in 1:6). The alternative, “Have you not made a distinction?” is most widely adopted, but the rendereing offered here adheres closer to the attested usage in non-Christian contexts. page 33.This final sentence is especially difficult for me to understand. Adam’s translation at the head of this section reads, “Haven’t you discriminated among yourselves.” But when he refers to “the rendering offered here” I think he is recalling the words earlier in this paragraph “are you not at odds.” I believe that this translation is based on his comments taking διακρινομαι as meaning "complain," as in the legal sense, “file a complaint” (a point explained at 1:6). Thus, I think the author’s translation “Are you not at odds” is an attempt to represent the passive sense of “complain.”
Anyway, my point is: Wouldn't a far simpler understanding of the word διεκρίθητε be to take it as a simple “self-affected” voice (ἑαυτικὴ διάθεσις) of διακρινω (to separate on from another distinguish, discriminate). Am I being simplistic?
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