There is obvious evidence that some of the vocabulary, especially : καθαρίσαι - ἐκτείνας τὴν χεῖρα - τῷ ἱερεῖ - προσέταξεν - Μωϋσῆς is heading towards some ritual still valid at Jesus's time. My question is :Καὶ ἔρχεται πρὸς αὐτὸν λεπρὸς παρακαλῶν αὐτὸν [καὶ γονυπετῶν] καὶ λέγων αὐτῷ ὅτι ἐὰν θέλῃς δύνασαί με καθαρίσαι.
41καὶ σπλαγχνισθεὶς ἐκτείνας τὴν χεῖρα αὐτοῦ ἥψατο καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ· θέλω, καθαρίσθητι·
42καὶ εὐθὺς ἀπῆλθεν ἀπ’ αὐτοῦ ἡ λέπρα, καὶ ἐκαθαρίσθη.
43καὶ ἐμβριμησάμενος αὐτῷ εὐθὺς ἐξέβαλεν αὐτὸν
44καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ· ὅρα μηδενὶ μηδὲν εἴπῃς, ἀλλ’ ὕπαγε σεαυτὸν δεῖξον τῷ ἱερεῖ καὶ προσένεγκε περὶ τοῦ καθαρισμοῦ σου ἃ προσέταξεν Μωϋσῆς, εἰς μαρτύριον αὐτοῖς.
- do somebody have any idea of any text of the Torah that uses the same vocabulary ? (septuagint or even hebrew)
- who is "the priest" of Mark 1:44 ? Where there in Galilee a ἱερεύς able to receive the offering of the leper ? Weren't they all in Jerusalem ?