Is it an inviolable rule that the optative in secondary sequence will always follow the main verb? A question about order of the constituents.Classical Greek sometimes uses the optative in secondary sequence (i.e., if the main verb is a past tense) in indirect statements (if the indirect question is part of the reported speech), but even that is optional, and use of the indicative would not have been wrong.
http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/test/foru ... 577#p15851
Biblical Greek morphology and syntax, aspect, linguistics, discourse analysis, and related topics
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Barry Hofstetter posted:
C. Stirling Bartholomew