I was reading a journal paper tonight on the importance of original language use by ministers when I noted that, in referring to the preservation of the OT Law, Christ appealed to an ἰῶτα—which is obviously not a Hebrew or Aramaic letter. For some reason I had never noticed this and the thought struck me that He was referencing the LXX since He used a Greek letter.
Sooo, to the experts I ran
May take me a day or two to respond, but will do so ASAP. Thank you in advance (love this forum)!