Stephen Carlson wrote:I'm not sure if I understand you two right, but both of you seem to be saying that ἠγάπησεν means performing an act of love, rather than having a loving feeling, right?
I'd confirm that this is how I would read it. We could render it as "showed his love." I would take it as conceptually parallel to Romans 5:8, which uses the verb συνίστημι (in this sense, "exhibit, give proof of") with τὴν ἑαυτοῦ ἀγάπην as its object.
But being rich in mercy, on account of the great love which he showed us [in sending Jesus / in taking us in / in having chosen us to participate in salvation – something along these lines], and ourselves being dead in trespasses, God made us alive with Christ...
Do you read it otherwise?
What gets me is the placement of ἡμᾶς between ὄντας and νεκρούς, as if it were part of the accusative circumstantial phrase rather than functioning as the object of συνεζωοποίησεν.
καὶ συνεζωοποίησεν ἡμᾶς τῷ Χριστῷ, νεκροὺς ὄντας τοῖς παραπώμασιν....
Wouldn't that be more sensible in terms of order? As it is, we don't find an explicit object of this verb (συνεζωοποίησεν) or of the verbs placed in parallel with it (συνήγειρεν and συνεκάθισεν of verse 6). We have to assume ἡμᾶς from the accusative phrase, but it isn't explicit as an independent pronominal object of the verb(s).
Additionally, what exactly is the καὶ connecting here? Is it connecting ὤν to ὄντας??
Jason A. Hare