[B-Greek] "gnomic" masculine

Elizabeth Kline kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Thu Jun 26 22:32:55 EDT 2008


On Jun 26, 2008, at 6:10 PM, Carl Conrad wrote:

> A nameless sage has called my attention to a reason why this usage  
> of the masculine adjective/participle might almost as well be termed  
> a "sententious" masculine:
> " τίκτω  (TIKTW)can be used for either parent. So the assertion  
> that the referent must be "women, exclusively" is not quite right.  
> It's not necessarily the child that one has borne, but one that one  
> has produced/engendered."

Carl,

I suspected as much. Having looked at LSJ on TIKTW I couldn't figure  
out why Cooper though the referent would always be a woman. But I  
always assume that Cooper knows more than I do,  which is why floated  
the question on the list.

Thanks,

Elizabeth Kline







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