[B-Greek] "gnomic" masculine
Elizabeth Kline
kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Thu Jun 26 22:32:55 EDT 2008
On Jun 26, 2008, at 6:10 PM, Carl Conrad wrote:
> A nameless sage has called my attention to a reason why this usage
> of the masculine adjective/participle might almost as well be termed
> a "sententious" masculine:
> " τίκτω (TIKTW)can be used for either parent. So the assertion
> that the referent must be "women, exclusively" is not quite right.
> It's not necessarily the child that one has borne, but one that one
> has produced/engendered."
Carl,
I suspected as much. Having looked at LSJ on TIKTW I couldn't figure
out why Cooper though the referent would always be a woman. But I
always assume that Cooper knows more than I do, which is why floated
the question on the list.
Thanks,
Elizabeth Kline
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list