[B-Greek] "gnomic" masculine

Elizabeth Kline kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Fri Jun 27 18:11:44 EDT 2008


On Jun 26, 2008, at 6:10 PM, Carl Conrad wrote:

> A nameless sage has called my attention to a reason why this usage  
> of the masculine adjective/participle might almost as well be termed  
> a "sententious" masculine:
> " τίκτω  (TIKTW)can be used for either parent. So the assertion  
> that the referent must be "women, exclusively" is not quite right.  
> It's not necessarily the child that one has borne, but one that one  
> has produced/engendered."

Thank you Carl and nameless sage,

I took one more look at Cooper and perhaps I have once again missed  
his intent. I suspect he was just pointing out that the referent in  
this particular case was obviously a woman not that the language used  
restricted the possible reference to women only.

Elizabeth Kline







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