Re: Galatians 1:10

From: Edgar M. Krentz (emkrentz@mcs.com)
Date: Wed Aug 30 1995 - 11:22:54 EDT


Travis Bauer recently wrote:
>
> I'm reading Calvin's commentary on Galatians. On verse 1:10, he
>asserts that there is an assumed kata in the verse so that it should be
>translated, "Do I seek to persuade according to men or God," rather
>than "Do I seek to please men or God?" He states that there is often an
>implied kata in situations like verse 10. It this generally accepted. If
>so, how can one identify such situations?
>
That is an interesting question, esoecially since John Calvin's earliest
publication was on Stoic philosophy, where KATA with an accusative
regularly introduces the criterion of action.

I did two things to answer your question. I first checked a series of
commentaries on my shelves: Burton (ICC), Betz (Hermeneia), Dunn (BNTC),
Lietzmann (HNT), Guthrie (NCB), Oepke (ThHKNT), Rohde (ThHKNT, newest
ed)Bruce (NIGTC),J.B. Lightfoot, Schlier (KEK, 13th ed.), Luehrmann
(Continental commentary),Lagrange, Bring, and Ebeling. These commentators
run the gamut from conservative evangelical to liberal, from nineteenth to
twentieth century, from Roman Catholic through Lutheran and Anglican to
Scotch Presbyterian and more conservative. Not a one of these commentators
even mention Calvin's interpretation.

I found one who did: Friedrich Sieffert (KEK, 9th ed.). He writes on p. 49
(I translate from his German): ANQRWPOUS PEIQW can not be interpreted:
*suadeone secundum homines* (Caalvin), a completely arbitrary
interpretation. (He also rejects interpretations suggested by Eraasmus and
Luther, Beza, etc.

Thus the consensus of commentators appears to be against Calvin's
interpretation. And so it is *not* generally accepted.

I also read through the entry on PEIQW in Liddell-Scott-Jones and could not
discover any citations there that would support Calvin. Nor did a quick
check of grammars on the use of the accusative case.

I suspect, but cannot prove, that Calvin's prior study of ancient Stoicism
influenced his interpretation.

I will be interested to see if others can make a good case for Calvin's
interpretation on the basis of linguistic usage in extra-biblical or NT
Greek.

Hope this is of assistance.

Cordially, Ed Krentz

Edgar Krentz <emkrentz@mcs.com>
New Testament, Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago
Voice: 312-753-0752; FAX: 312-753-0782



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