1 Cor 14:34 speak??

From: Mark & Mary Markham (markhamm@topsurf.com)
Date: Wed Sep 09 1998 - 13:20:59 EDT


1 Corinthians 14:34

aiJ gunai`ke" ejn tai`" ejkklhsivai" sigavtwsan: ouj ga;r ejpitrevpetai
aujtai`" lalei`n, ajlla; uJpotassevsqwsan, kaqw;" kai; oJ novmo" levgei.

I have seen threads on this before, but am in the passage now. Taken by
itself (forget Timothy and 1 Cor. 11 for a min) does the Greek here prohibit
females( or wives?) from any speaking, speaking in tongues, or propecy (see
the form in verse 29.)?

Thanks,
Mark

---
B-Greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu]
To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-329W@franklin.oit.unc.edu
To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu


This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:39:59 EDT