From: Christopher Hutson (crhutson@salisbury.net)
Date: Fri Dec 18 1998 - 12:14:49 EST
Charles Powell wrote:
>Does anyone know of any references, either biblical or nonbiblical
where
>ARNEOMAI or any of its verbal cognates is constructed with a double
accusative
>of person/thing? What difference in meaning would it make between
having the
>double accusative versus having the single accusative of person. How
would
>this affect the meaning of APARNEOMAI in a text like 2 Tim 2:12?
>
Charles, a quick check of LSJ shows no such usage. But I don't
understand how that would affect 2 Tim 2:12 anyway. What possible
double accusative do you see here?
XPIC
------------------------------------
Christopher R. Hutson
Hood Theological Seminary
Salisbury, NC 28144
crhutson@salisbury.net
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