Re: Latin in Barnabas

From: Polycarp66@aol.com
Date: Thu Apr 20 2000 - 17:45:37 EDT


In a message dated 4/20/2000 6:21:56 AM Central Standard Time,
behrman@email.unc.edu writes:

<<
    Lake is following the old tradition of not offending the sensitivies of
 English readers, a tradition widespread among translators of the 19th
 century (his Loeb translation of course was 1912-13) and seen for example
 in passages (*long* ones) in the ANF (e.g., in Clement of Alexandria's
 STromateis). THe idea was that if a text was highly charged in terms of
 sexual content, it was to be rendered into Latin to prevent offence but to
 allow scholars access to it. (In this case, I believe, Lake didn't
 translate into Latin but used the surviving Latin version; the editors'
 later English translation, I might add, is none too good -- completely
 misses the point about the rabbit!)
>>

This sounds valid to me.

gfsomsel

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