[b-greek] Re: John 21 - the significance of the OTHER synonyms (per AGAPAO/PHILEO)

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Sat Jan 06 2001 - 10:11:30 EST


At 9:38 AM -0800 1/6/01, Dmitriy Reznik wrote:
>Hi Steve:
>I think we mustn't forget that original conversation was not in Greek but
>in Hebrew or Aramaic. I doubt Jesus could make in those languages that
>distinction you point to. For example syraic Peshittah uses same word for
>"to love" three times.

I think that before this goes on much longer, it should be realized that
different and perhaps irreconcilable hermeneutical principles are involved
in the discussion: Steve is arguing that John 21 is a LITERARY composition
in Greek rather than a faithful representation and translation into Greek
of a dialogue held originally in Aramaic: that is, that it is an
intepretation of the incident. I don't really want to speak for Steve, but
I think that's what he was implying--and it's a viewpoint that I happen to
share myself, but I am well aware that many list-members do NOT share that
viewpoint. And we DON'T want to get involved in a discussion of
hermeneutical principles on list.

--

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

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