[b-greek] Re: Phil. 2:10, 11

From: B. D. Colt (babc2@attbi.com)
Date: Sat Dec 15 2001 - 22:16:18 EST


On 15 Dec 01, at 12:19, Carl W. Conrad wrote:

> At 12:58 PM -0500 12/15/01, Ted Mann wrote:

>
> Ted, the reason Paul uses the subjunctive is simply that KAMYHi is in
> a hINA purpose clause; he may be citing Isaiah 45:23, but he (or--if
> he is citing a hymn already current in Gentile Christianity--the
> original composer of it) is adapting it to the construction here to
> fit a purpose clause. Whether it's right to translate a purpose clause
> with a future indicative is another question; it's not something that
> I'd do. --
>
I'm not sure I understand you correctly, but note that the KJV (which
is after all not an American translation) has ". . . every knee shall
bow." In the older English (and taught even in American schools
when I was young), 'shall' in the 2d and 3d persons indicates the will
of the speaker, and is more of an imperative than anything else.
"Every knee will bow" is indeed a future indicative. (It's quite the
reverse of this in the 1st person.)


Barbara D. Colt, mailto:babc2@attbi.com
St John the Evangelist, San Francisco

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