[b-greek] Re: Phil. 2:10, 11

From: Harry W. Jones (hjbluebird@aol.com)
Date: Sun Dec 16 2001 - 15:37:13 EST


Dear Ted,

After looking at the Septuagint, (23) KAT' EMAUTOU OMNUW, EI MH
EXELEUSETAI EK TOU STOMATOS MOU DIKAIOSUNH, hOI LOGOI MOU OUK
APOSTRAFHSONTAI: (24) hOTI EMOI KAMYEI PAN GONU, KAI OMEITAI
PASA GLWSSA TON QEON, (25) LEGWN, DIKAIOSUNH KAI DOXA PROS AUTON hHXEI,
KAI AISCUHQHSOHTAI PANTES hOI DIORIZONTES AUTOUS. Isa 45:23-25. And
comparing it to Phil. 2:10,11, it's obvious that there are too many
differences for Paul to have been quoting from the Septuagint. For
example,
the particles hOTI and hIHA are not the same. hOTI introduces a discourse
clause whereas hIHA introduces a purpose clause. Also KAMYEI from
the Septuagint doesn't equal KAMYHi in Phil. 2:10. Also one last item,
OMEITAI in the LXX doesn't equal EXOMOLOGHSHTAI in Phil. 2:11.

So it seems to me very unlikely to impossible that Paul would be quoting
from the LXX.

Also I don't know why the NASB translates differently the subjunctives
in Phil. 2:10,11 from all other translations. That is a big mystery!

Best Regards,
Harry Jones

> On 15 Dec 01, at 12:19, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>
> > At 12:58 PM -0500 12/15/01, Ted Mann wrote:
>
> >
> > Ted, the reason Paul uses the subjunctive is simply that KAMYHi is in
> > a hINA purpose clause; he may be citing Isaiah 45:23, but he (or--if
> > he is citing a hymn already current in Gentile Christianity--the
> > original composer of it) is adapting it to the construction here to
> > fit a purpose clause. Whether it's right to translate a purpose clause
> > with a future indicative is another question; it's not something that
> > I'd do. --
> >
> I'm not sure I understand you correctly, but note that the KJV (which
> is after all not an American translation) has ". . . every knee shall
> bow." In the older English (and taught even in American schools
> when I was young), 'shall' in the 2d and 3d persons indicates the will
> of the speaker, and is more of an imperative than anything else.
> "Every knee will bow" is indeed a future indicative. (It's quite the
> reverse of this in the 1st person.)
>
>
> Barbara D. Colt, mailto:babc2@attbi.com
> St John the Evangelist, San Francisco

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