Τῇ ἐπαύριον βλέπει ὁ Ἰωάννης τὸν Ἰησοῦν ἐρχόμενον πρὸς αὐτόν, καὶ λέγει· Ἴδε ὁ ἀμνὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ὁ αἴρων τὴν ἁμαρτίαν τοῦ κόσμου. (PT 1904)
Regarding βλέπει (PAI-3S) and λέγει (PAI-3S). In the RSV and NKJV these are translated as the English past tense "saw" and "said;" whereas the KJV translates them (correctly?) as "seeth" (English: Simple PI-3S of "see") and "saith" (English: Simple PI-3S of "say"). I haven't found any grammar rule for Greek or English as to why. Any help?
John 1:29
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John 1:29
Fr. Thomas Sandberg, B.Th.(Hons.)
Greek Orthodox Archdiocese of Canada
thomassandberg.ca
<<μὴ μέταιρε ὅρια αἰώνια, ἃ ἔθεντο οἱ πατέρες σου.>>
-Παροιμίαι ΚΒʹ:28
Greek Orthodox Archdiocese of Canada
thomassandberg.ca
<<μὴ μέταιρε ὅρια αἰώνια, ἃ ἔθεντο οἱ πατέρες σου.>>
-Παροιμίαι ΚΒʹ:28
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- Joined: August 24th, 2016, 1:34 pm
Re: John 1:29
The use of the historical present is very common in Greek. It sometimes works in English as well, but is often better translated into the past tense.
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- Posts: 11
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Re: John 1:29
Εὐχαριστῶ.
Fr. Thomas Sandberg, B.Th.(Hons.)
Greek Orthodox Archdiocese of Canada
thomassandberg.ca
<<μὴ μέταιρε ὅρια αἰώνια, ἃ ἔθεντο οἱ πατέρες σου.>>
-Παροιμίαι ΚΒʹ:28
Greek Orthodox Archdiocese of Canada
thomassandberg.ca
<<μὴ μέταιρε ὅρια αἰώνια, ἃ ἔθεντο οἱ πατέρες σου.>>
-Παροιμίαι ΚΒʹ:28