In Acts 5:3, what is the function of σε?

[Bill Ross]

mGNT Acts 5:3 εἶπεν δὲ ὁ Πέτρος Ἁνανία διὰ τί ἐπλήρωσεν ὁ Σατανᾶς τὴν καρδίαν σου ψεύσασθαί σε τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον καὶ νοσφίσασθαι ἀπὸ τῆς τιμῆς τοῦ χωρίου

[Jonathan Robie]

Here's the phrase it is part of:

ψεύσασθαί σε τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον

σε is the accusative subject of the infinitive ψεύσασθαί.

[Bill Ross]

Thanks Jonathon.

Isn't the accusative, by definition, always the direct object?

[MAubrey]

Isn't the accusative, by definition, always the direct object?

Normally, but not always.Infinitive verbs always take the accusative case for their subjects.

Consider in English:

I wanted her to eat the apple.

The pronoun 'her' is the object of 'wanted', but the subject of the English infinitive 'to eat', it takes the normal case of object pronouns though here. The situation is similar to Greek, but Greek has extended that pattern to all occurrences of a infinitive subject, not just ones where the infinitive is subordinate to another verb.

[Bill Ross]

Ah, thanks. All clear now.

[Barry Hofstetter]

Thanks Jonathon.

Isn't the accusative, by definition, always the direct object?

As Michael said, not always. That is one function of the accusative in Greek. You also have the accusative as the object of prepositions, you have the accusative of duration and various other adverbial uses. Here, it's important to remember that the subject of an infinitive regularly goes into the accusative case (unless it is the same as the subject of the main verb, then it goes into the nominative).

[Bill Ross]

Thanks Jonathon.

Isn't the accusative, by definition, always the direct object?

As Michael said, not always. That is one function of the accusative in Greek. You also have the accusative as the object of prepositions, you have the accusative of duration and various other adverbial uses. Here, it's important to remember that the subject of an infinitive regularly goes into the accusative case (unless it is the same as the subject of the main verb, then it goes into the nominative).

Thank you Barry.

To pose this as a question in my own mental language...

Does an accusative subject always trace back to a main verb in the nominative? @MAubrey used as an example this sentence which features what in Koine would be the nominative, "I":

I wanted her to eat the apple.

If, as I might instinctively do, we recoil at an accusative without a nominative subject somewhere, can we imagine a similar situation similar to MAubrey's example but without "I"? Where there is no provided nominative, are we inexorably driven we supply one from context?

[Barry Hofstetter]

No, the subject of the main verb in the English example provided by Michael is "I" and the subject of the infinitive is "her." If the subject were the same it would be something like "I wanted to eat an apple." As in English, so in Greek, if the subjects are the same the subject of the infinitive is regularly omitted, but if expressed, goes into the nominative (or if there is a predicate noun or adjective referring to the subject).

[Bill Ross]

No, the subject of the main verb in the English example provide by Michael is "I" and the subject of the infinitive is "her." If the subject were the same it would be something like "I wanted to eat an apple." As in English, so in Greek, if the subjects are the same the subject of the infinitive is regularly omitted, but if expressed, goes into the nominative (or if there is a predicate noun or adjective referring to the subject).

Okay, but in koine as in English, this would not be a valid sentence:

Her to eat the apple.

Right? An accusative subject without a Prior nominative, implied or explicit is an error, correct?

[Jonathan Robie]

No, the subject of the main verb in the English example provide by Michael is "I" and the subject of the infinitive is "her." If the subject were the same it would be something like "I wanted to eat an apple." As in English, so in Greek, if the subjects are the same the subject of the infinitive is regularly omitted, but if expressed, goes into the nominative (or if there is a predicate noun or adjective referring to the subject).

Okay, but in koine as in English, this would not be a valid sentence:

Her to eat the apple.

Right? An accusative subject without a Prior nominative, implied or explicit is an error, correct?

That's not true. Here's an example from John 3:7, it can stand alone as a complete sentence.

δεῖ ὑμᾶς γεννηθῆναι ἄνωθεν

What is almost true is that every complete sentence must have a finite verb, and an infinitive is not a finite verb. (Sometimes a verbless clause can play the role of a clause with a finite verb).

The attached file contains a bunch of infinitives that have accusative subjects. Pick a bunch of these sentences and see if you can identify the subject for each infinitive you choose. Think about the relationship between each infinitive and other verbs in the sentence. Incidentally, what Greek grammars do you have?